Sample Question Pool-I

 

1.A 55-year-old male with a history of hypertension presents for a routine check-up. His current medication regimen includes lisinopril 20 mg daily. His blood pressure today is 150/95 mmHg. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

A. Increase lisinopril to 40 mg daily

B. Add hydrochlorothiazide 12.5 mg daily

C. Add amlodipine 5 mg daily

D. Switch to losartan 50 mg daily

 

2.A patient with heart failure with reduced ejection fraction (HFrEF) is currently taking carvedilol 12.5 mg twice daily, lisinopril 20 mg daily, and furosemide 40 mg daily. Despite this regimen, they continue to have symptoms. Which medication could be added to improve their symptoms and reduce mortality?

A. Spironolactone

B. Digoxin

C. Hydrochlorothiazide

D. Nifedipine

 

3.A 70-year-old female with atrial fibrillation and a CHA2DS2-VASc score of 3 is being considered for anticoagulation therapy. Which of the following is the most appropriate anticoagulant for this patient?

A. Aspirin 81 mg daily

B. Warfarin with a target INR of 2-3

C. Clopidogrel 75 mg daily

D. Apixaban 5 mg twice daily

 

4.A 45-year-old male with type 2 diabetes and an LDL cholesterol of 150 mg/dL is seen for a follow-up visit. According to current guidelines, which of the following is the most appropriate treatment for his dyslipidemia?

A. Atorvastatin 40 mg daily

B. Ezetimibe 10 mg daily

C. Niacin 500 mg daily

D. Fenofibrate 160 mg daily

​

5.A 60-year-old male presents to the emergency department with chest pain and is diagnosed with an ST-elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI). Which of the following medications should be administered immediately as part of the initial management?

A. Aspirin

B. Metoprolol

C. Enalapril

D. Atorvastatin

• A 35-year-old female presents with symptoms of a urinary tract infection (UTI). A urine culture grows Escherichia coli, which is sensitive to multiple antibiotics. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial treatment?

A. Amoxicillin

B. Ciprofloxacin

C. Nitrofurantoin

D. Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole

​

7.A 50-year-old male with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is diagnosed with oral candidiasis. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment?

A. Fluconazole

B. Amphotericin B

C. Nystatin

D. Terbinafine

​

8.A patient is diagnosed with genital herpes. Which of the following is the most appropriate antiviral therapy for an acute outbreak?

A. Acyclovir

B. Oseltamivir

C. Ribavirin

D. Zidovudine

​

9.A 28-year-old male recently diagnosed with HIV is initiating antiretroviral therapy (ART). Which of the following regimens is recommended as a first-line treatment?

A. Efavirenz/emtricitabine/tenofovir

B. Abacavir/lamivudine

C. Lopinavir/ritonavir

​

D. Darunavir/cobicistat/emtricitabine/tenofovir

10. A 65-year-old female with a history of diabetes and hypertension is seen for an annual check-up. Which of the following vaccines should she receive today, assuming she is up-to-date on all other vaccinations?

A. Influenza

B. Hepatitis B

C. Varicella

D. Measles, mumps, and rubella (MMR)

​

11. A 50-year-old male with type 2 diabetes presents for a follow-up visit. His HbA1c is 8.5%. He is currently taking metformin 1000 mg twice daily. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

A. Add insulin glargine

B. Add sitagliptin

C. Increase metformin to 2000 mg twice daily

D. Switch to glyburide

​

12. A patient with hypothyroidism is currently taking levothyroxine 75 mcg daily. Her recent TSH level is 6.0 mIU/L. Which of the following is the most appropriate adjustment to her levothyroxine dose?

A. Increase to 100 mcg daily

B. Increase to 88 mcg daily

C. Decrease to 50 mcg daily

D. Maintain current dose

​

13. A 70-year-old female with a history of osteoporosis and a T-score of -2.8 is being seen for follow-up. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment to reduce her risk of fractures?

A. Calcium and vitamin D supplementation

B. Alendronate

C. Teriparatide

D. Raloxifene

​

14. A 52-year-old female experiencing menopausal symptoms is considering hormone replacement therapy (HRT). Which of the following is an absolute contraindication to HRT?

A. History of osteoporosis

B. History of breast cancer

C. Hot flashes

D. Vaginal dryness

​

15. A 45-year-old male is diagnosed with primary adrenal insufficiency (Addison's disease). Which of the following medications is essential for his treatment?

A. Hydrocortisone

B. Fludrocortisone

C. Prednisone

D. Spironolactone

​

16. A 10-year-old female with asthma uses an albuterol inhaler as needed and takes montelukast daily. Despite this, she has been waking up with symptoms at least once a week. What is the most appropriate step in her asthma management?

A. Add a long-acting beta-agonist (LABA)

B. Increase montelukast dose

C. Add inhaled corticosteroid (ICS)

D. Use albuterol more frequently

​

17. A 65-year-old male with COPD has an FEV1 of 55% predicted. He is currently using tiotropium inhaler once daily. He still experiences dyspnea with moderate exertion. Which of the following is the most appropriate addition to his therapy?

A. Albuterol

B. Formoterol

C. Ipratropium

D. Fluticasone

​

18. A 30-year-old female presents with symptoms of allergic rhinitis. Which of the following is the most effective treatment for her symptoms?

A. Loratadine

B. Pseudoephedrine

C. Fluticasone nasal spray

D. Cromolyn nasal spray

​

19. A 40-year-old male who smokes one pack per day is motivated to quit. He has tried nicotine replacement therapy without success. Which of the following medications is an appropriate next step for smoking cessation?

A. Bupropion

B. Varenicline

C. Clonidine

D. Nortriptyline

​

20. A 15-year-old female with cystic fibrosis is being managed for pulmonary exacerbations. Which of the following is a key component of her treatment regimen?

A. Bronchodilators

B. Mucolytics

C. Antibiotics

D. All of the above

​

21. 45-year-old male with a history of GERD presents with heartburn symptoms despite taking omeprazole 20 mg daily. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

A. Increase omeprazole to 40 mg daily

B. Add ranitidine at bedtime

C. Switch to pantoprazole 40 mg daily

D. Add an antacid as needed

​

22. A 60-year-old female with a history of peptic ulcer disease is currently taking NSAIDs for osteoarthritis. She reports epigastric pain. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment to prevent NSAID-induced ulcers?

A. Misoprostol

B. Sucralfate

C. Ranitidine

D. Famotidine

​

23. A 25-year-old male with Crohn’s disease is experiencing frequent flare-ups despite being on mesalamine. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in his treatment?

A. Prednisone

B. Azathioprine

C. Methotrexate

D. Infliximab

​

24. A 30-year-old female with irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) presents with symptoms of constipation. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment?

A. Loperamide

B. Polyethylene glycol

C. Bisacodyl

D. Linaclotide

​

25. A 50-year-old male with chronic hepatitis B is being considered for antiviral therapy. Which of the following is the first-line treatment for chronic hepatitis B?

A. Tenofovir

B. Ribavirin

C. Adefovir

D. Lamivudine

​

26. A 35-year-old female with major depressive disorder is currently taking sertraline 50 mg daily but continues to have depressive symptoms. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in her treatment?

A. Increase sertraline to 100 mg daily

B. Switch to fluoxetine

C. Add bupropion

D. Add lithium

​

27. A 40-year-old male with generalized anxiety disorder is not responding adequately to cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT). Which of the following is the most appropriate pharmacotherapy?

A. Alprazolam

B. Buspirone

C. Fluoxetine

D. Propranolol

​

28. A 25-year-old male with schizophrenia is experiencing positive symptoms despite taking risperidone 4 mg daily. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in his treatment?

A. Increase risperidone to 6 mg daily

B. Switch to clozapine

C. Add haloperidol

D. Add lorazepam

​

29. A 30-year-old female with bipolar disorder is currently in a manic episode. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment for acute mania?

A. Lithium

B. Valproate

C. Lamotrigine

D. Sertraline

​

30. A 20-year-old male with newly diagnosed epilepsy experiences generalized tonic-clonic seizures. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial treatment?

A. Phenytoin

B. Lamotrigine

C. Ethosuximide

D. Valproic acid

​

31. A 45-year-old female with chronic back pain is currently taking ibuprofen 800 mg three times daily but still experiences significant pain. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in her pain management?

A. Switch to acetaminophen

B. Add gabapentin

C. Prescribe oxycodone

D. Add a muscle relaxant

​

32. A 30-year-old male with opioid use disorder is seeking treatment. Which of the following is an evidence-based option for maintenance therapy?

A. Methadone

B. Naltrexone

C. Buprenorphine

D. All of the above

​

33. A 60-year-old female with diabetic neuropathy reports burning pain in her feet. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial treatment for her neuropathic pain?

A. Amitriptyline

B. Gabapentin

C. Naproxen

D. Lidocaine patches

​

34. A 70-year-old male with advanced cancer is experiencing severe pain and is currently on a high-dose opioid regimen. Which of the following adjuvant medications can be used to manage his opioid-induced constipation?

A. Docusate

B. Senna

C. Methylnaltrexone

D. Lactulose

​

35. A 50-year-old female with osteoarthritis is not getting sufficient pain relief from acetaminophen. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in her pain management?

A. Tramadol

B. Naproxen

C. Hydrocodone

D. Celecoxib

​

36. A 65-year-old female with diabetes is being seen for her annual check-up. Which of the following vaccines is recommended for her at this visit?

A. Zoster

B. Meningococcal

C. Hepatitis A

D. Human papillomavirus (HPV)

​

37. A 2-month-old infant presents for a well-child visit. Which of the following vaccines is recommended at this age?

A. Hepatitis B

B. Rotavirus

C. MMR

D. Varicella

​

38. A 30-year-old female with asthma asks about the annual influenza vaccine. Which of the following is the best recommendation?

A. Inactivated influenza vaccine (IIV)

B. Live attenuated influenza vaccine (LAIV)

C. High-dose influenza vaccine

D. No influenza vaccine needed

​

39. A 25-year-old male is planning a trip to a region where yellow fever is endemic. Which of the following vaccines should he receive?

A. Typhoid

B. Yellow fever

C. Hepatitis A

D. Japanese encephalitis

​

40. A 45-year-old male with a history of severe egg allergy is concerned about getting the influenza vaccine. Which of the following is true regarding his vaccination?

A. He should not receive any influenza vaccine

B. He can receive the inactivated influenza vaccine (IIV) with observation

C. He can receive the live attenuated influenza vaccine (LAIV)

D. He should receive only the high-dose influenza vaccine

​

41. When preparing sterile products, which of the following techniques is critical to prevent contamination?

A. Using non-sterile gloves

B. Working within 6 inches of the edge of the laminar airflow hood

C. Frequently changing sterile gloves

D. Using a horizontal laminar airflow hood for hazardous drugs

​

42. A prescription calls for a compounded oral suspension. Which of the following is the first step in the compounding process?

A. Selecting the appropriate equipment

B. Calculating the quantity of each ingredient

C. Ensuring the workspace is clean

D. Verifying the prescription with the prescriber

​

43. According to USP <795>, which of the following is true for non-sterile compounding?

A. Compounded preparations must be sterile

B. Beyond-use dates must be assigned based on stability studies

C. Compounding should occur in a dedicated, controlled environment

D. Personal protective equipment (PPE) is not necessary

​

44. During the preparation of a compounded medication, which of the following is a key quality control measure?

A. Conducting a final check of the compounded product

B. Using only brand-name ingredients

C. Documenting the time spent on compounding

D. Packaging the product in standard containers

​

45. Which of the following personal protective equipment (PPE) is required when compounding hazardous drugs?

A. Non-sterile gloves

B. N95 respirator

C. Gown and gloves

D. Hair cover and shoe covers

​

46. A prescription for a pediatric patient reads "amoxicillin 400 mg/5 mL, take 5 mL twice daily for 10 days." The pharmacy stocks amoxicillin 250 mg/5 mL. Which of the following is the correct quantity to dispense?

A. 100 mL

B. 200 mL

C. 150 mL

D. 250 mL

​

47. Which of the following is a key requirement when dispensing a Schedule II controlled substance?

A. No refills are allowed

B. Refills are allowed with a new prescription

C. Partial fills are allowed for 30 days

D. Verbal prescriptions are allowed in emergencies

​

48. Which of the following information is required on the label of a dispensed medication?

A. Patient’s date of birth

B. Prescriber’s DEA number

C. Date of dispensing

D. Pharmacist’s name

​

49. A pharmacist receives a prescription for "metformin 500 mg tablets, take 1 tablet twice daily." The patient’s profile shows a history of renal impairment. Which of the following actions should the pharmacist take?

A. Dispense the medication as prescribed

B. Reduce the dose to 250 mg twice daily

C. Contact the prescriber to verify the dose

D. Substitute with metformin XR

​

50. Which of the following tasks can a pharmacy technician perform under the supervision of a pharmacist?

A. Counseling patients on medication use

B. Transferring a controlled substance prescription

C. Compounding non-sterile preparations

D. Verifying medication orders

​

51. Which of the following medications is contraindicated in pregnancy due to its teratogenic effects?
A) Metformin
B) Lisinopril
C) Amoxicillin
D) Levothyroxine

 

52. A patient with hypertension is prescribed lisinopril. Which laboratory test should be monitored periodically?
A) Serum potassium
B) Blood glucose
C) Liver enzymes
D) Serum creatinine

 

53. Which of the following is the primary action of beta-blockers in treating hypertension?
A) Decreasing heart rate
B) Vasodilation
C) Diuresis
D) Increasing cardiac output

 

54. A patient with asthma is prescribed a new inhaler. Which instruction is most important to provide?
A) Take it only when symptoms occur
B) Shake the inhaler well before use
C) Use the inhaler with a spacer
D) Rinse your mouth after use

 

55. Which of the following vaccines is contraindicated in a patient with a history of anaphylaxis to eggs?
A) Influenza vaccine
B) Hepatitis B vaccine
C) Tetanus vaccine
D) MMR vaccine

 

56. A patient is prescribed warfarin. Which of the following dietary changes should the patient be aware of?
A) Increase intake of leafy greens
B) Decrease intake of dairy products
C) Avoid caffeine
D) Consume more protein

 

57. Which of the following is a common side effect of statins?
A) Weight gain
B) Muscle pain
C) Constipation
D) Hyperglycemia

 

58. A patient with Type 2 diabetes is started on metformin. Which of the following should be monitored?
A) Blood pressure
B) Liver function tests
C) Serum creatinine
D) Thyroid function tests

 

59. What is the maximum daily dose of acetaminophen for an adult?
A) 2,000 mg
B) 3,000 mg
C) 4,000 mg
D) 5,000 mg

 

60. A 70-year-old patient is prescribed digoxin. What should be monitored before administering the drug?
A) Serum glucose
B) Serum potassium
C) Liver function tests
D) Renal function

 

61. Which class of medications is first-line for the treatment of chronic asthma?
A) Antihistamines
B) Corticosteroids
C) Beta-agonists
D) Leukotriene modifiers

 

62. A patient with a history of heart failure is prescribed a new medication. Which of the following should be used cautiously?
A) Beta-blocker
B) Calcium channel blocker
C) ACE inhibitor
D) Diuretic

 

63. What is the primary mechanism of action of thiazide diuretics?
A) Inhibition of sodium reabsorption in the distal convoluted tubule
B) Inhibition of aldosterone secretion
C) Direct vasodilation of blood vessels
D) Inhibition of loop of Henle reabsorption

 

64. A patient presents with a migraine. Which of the following medications is indicated for acute treatment?
A) Propranolol
B) Sumatriptan
C) Amitriptyline
D) Verapamil

 

65. Which of the following is an adverse effect associated with clindamycin?
A) Tinnitus
B) Diarrhea
C) Rash
D) Photosensitivity

 

66. A pharmacist is reviewing a patient's medication list. Which medication is most likely to cause drowsiness?
A) Sertraline
B) Cetirizine
C) Metoprolol
D) Amlodipine

 

67. Which of the following medications requires renal dosing adjustments?
A) Warfarin
B) Furosemide
C) Digoxin
D) Omeprazole

 

68. A patient with hyperlipidemia is not reaching their LDL target after lifestyle changes. Which medication class is appropriate for addition?
A) Statins
B) Fibrates
C) Niacin
D) Bile acid sequestrants

 

69. What is the most common side effect of fluoxetine?
A) Weight loss
B) Insomnia
C) Sexual dysfunction
D) Drowsiness

 

70. A patient receiving chemotherapy presents with nausea. Which class of medications is most effective for prevention?
A) Antihistamines
B) Serotonin antagonists
C) Corticosteroids
D) Dopamine antagonists

 

71. Which of the following medications is used for opioid overdose?
A) Naloxone
B) Naltrexone
C) Methadone
D) Buprenorphine

 

72. A patient is prescribed levothyroxine. What instruction should be provided regarding its administration?
A) Take with food
B) Take at bedtime
C) Take on an empty stomach
D) Take with antacids

 

73. A patient develops a rash after starting a new antibiotic. Which class of antibiotics is most likely to cause allergic reactions?
A) Macrolides
B) Penicillins
C) Tetracyclines
D) Sulfonamides

 

74. Which of the following is a contraindication for using potassium-sparing diuretics?
A) Hypertension
B) Heart failure
C) Hyperkalemia
D) Edema

 

75. A patient is taking multiple medications for hypertension. Which medication is most likely to cause a cough?
A) Hydrochlorothiazide
B) Losartan
C) Lisinopril
D) Amlodipine

 

76. Which of the following vaccines should not be given to an immunocompromised patient?
A) Influenza (inactivated)
B) Pneumococcal polysaccharide
C) MMR
D) Tdap

 

77. What is the primary goal of therapy for patients with heart failure?
A) Increase exercise tolerance
B) Reduce hospital admissions
C) Improve quality of life
D) All of the above

 

78. A patient presents with diabetes and chronic kidney disease. Which oral hypoglycemic agent is generally avoided in this population?
A) Metformin
B) Sulfonylureas
C) DPP-4 inhibitors
D) GLP-1 agonists

 

79. Which of the following medications is known to cause photosensitivity?
A) Doxycycline
B) Azithromycin
C) Amoxicillin
D) Clindamycin

 

80. A patient is started on a new antidepressant. Which class is associated with the highest risk of serotonin syndrome?
A) SSRIs
B) SNRIs
C) TCAs
D) MAOIs

 

81. Which of the following side effects is most commonly associated with ACE inhibitors?
A) Cough
B) Hyperkalemia
C) Hypotension
D) Angioedema

 

82. A patient is using an inhaled corticosteroid for asthma. What is the most important counseling point?
A) Use as needed for acute symptoms
B) Rinse mouth after each use
C) Store in the refrigerator
D) Increase dosage if symptoms worsen

 

83. A patient with hyperthyroidism is prescribed propylthiouracil (PTU). What is an important monitoring parameter?
A) Liver function tests
B) Thyroid function tests
C) Complete blood count
D) Serum electrolytes

 

84. A pharmacist is counseling a patient starting a new medication. Which of the following is important to confirm before initiating therapy?
A) Patient's allergies
B) Patient's family history
C) Patient's occupation
D) Patient's travel history

 

85. Which of the following medications is a monoclonal antibody used in the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis?
A) Methotrexate
B) Etanercept
C) Hydroxychloroquine
D) Sulfasalazine

 

86. A patient with COPD is prescribed tiotropium. Which class of medication does this belong to?
A) Beta-agonist
B) Anticholinergic
C) Corticosteroid
D) Leukotriene receptor antagonist

 

87. Which of the following is a common side effect of loop diuretics?
A) Hyperkalemia
B) Hypomagnesemia
C) Hypertension
D) Weight gain

 

88. A patient is taking a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI). What is a common withdrawal symptom if the medication is abruptly discontinued?
A) Dizziness
B) Seizures
C) Hyperactivity
D) Fatigue

 

89. Which of the following drugs is contraindicated with nitrates due to the risk of severe hypotension?
A) Calcium channel blockers
B) Beta-blockers
C) Sildenafil
D) Aspirin

 

90. A patient is diagnosed with a bacterial infection. Which of the following antibiotics is appropriate for treating methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA)?
A) Vancomycin
B) Ampicillin
C) Ciprofloxacin
D) Clindamycin

 

91. What is the mechanism of action of atorvastatin?
A) Inhibition of cholesterol absorption
B) Inhibition of HMG-CoA reductase
C) Stimulation of bile acid secretion
D) Increase in HDL synthesis

 

92. A patient with atrial fibrillation is started on dabigatran. Which counseling point is essential regarding this medication?
A) Take with food
B) Discontinue if you experience chest pain
C) Store capsules in the original container
D) Crush capsules before taking

 

93. Which laboratory test is most important for monitoring patients on lithium therapy?
A) Thyroid function tests
B) Serum creatinine
C) Serum electrolytes
D) Serum lithium levels

 

94. A patient presents with an acute exacerbation of gout. Which medication is indicated for immediate relief of symptoms?
A) Allopurinol
B) Colchicine
C) Probenecid
D) Febuxostat

 

95. What is the appropriate initial treatment for a patient presenting with anaphylaxis?
A) Oral antihistamines
B) Intravenous steroids
C) Epinephrine injection
D) Inhaled beta-agonists

 

96. A patient receiving chemotherapy develops neutropenia. Which medication is indicated to stimulate white blood cell production?
A) Epoetin alfa
B) Filgrastim
C) Darbepoetin alfa
D) Romiplostim

 

97. Which of the following is a key counseling point for patients taking metformin?
A) Take with a high-carb meal
B) Avoid alcohol
C) Expect weight gain
D) Monitor blood sugar levels frequently

 

98. Which of the following medications can cause torsades de pointes?
A) Metoprolol
B) Amiodarone
C) Azithromycin
D) Amlodipine

 

99. A patient taking clopidogrel should be advised to avoid which of the following?
A) Grapefruit juice
B) NSAIDs
C) Vitamin K-rich foods
D) Milk

 

100. A pharmacist is reviewing a medication regimen. Which of the following interactions should be of concern?
A) Simvastatin with amlodipine
B) Omeprazole with warfarin
C) Metformin with insulin
D) Lisinopril with hydrochlorothiazide

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ANSWERS

1. B - Add hydrochlorothiazide 12.5 mg daily

2. A - Spironolactone

3. D - Apixaban 5 mg twice daily

4. A - Atorvastatin 40 mg daily

5. A - Aspirin

6. C - Nitrofurantoin

7. C - Nystatin

8. A - Acyclovir

9. D - Darunavir/cobicistat/emtricitabine/tenofovir

10. A - Influenza

11. B - Add sitagliptin

12. A - Increase to 100 mcg daily

13. B - Alendronate

14. B - History of breast cancer

15. A - Hydrocortisone

16. C - Add inhaled corticosteroid (ICS)

17. B - Formoterol

18. C - Fluticasone nasal spray

19. B - Varenicline

20. D - All of the above

21. A - Increase omeprazole to 40 mg daily

22. A - Misoprostol

23. D - Infliximab

24. D - Linaclotide

25. A - Tenofovir

26. A - Increase sertraline to 100 mg daily

27. C - Fluoxetine

28. A - Increase risperidone to 6 mg daily

29. B - Valproate

30. D - Valproic acid

31. B - Add gabapentin

32. D - All of the above

33. A - Amitriptyline

34. C - Methylnaltrexone

35. D - Celecoxib

36. A - Zoster

37. A - Hepatitis B

38. A - Inactivated influenza vaccine (IIV)

39. B - Yellow fever

40. B - He can receive the inactivated influenza vaccine (IIV) with observation

41. C - Frequently changing sterile gloves

42. C - Ensuring the workspace is clean

43. B - Beyond-use dates must be assigned based on stability studies

44. A - Conducting a final check of the compounded product

45. C - Gown and gloves

46. A - 100 mL

47. A - No refills are allowed

48. C - Date of dispensing

49. A - Dispense the medication as prescribed

50. C - Compounding non-sterile preparations

51. B - Lisinopril

52. A - Serum potassium

53. A - Decreasing heart rate

54. B - Shake the inhaler well before use

55. A - Influenza vaccine

56. A - Increase intake of leafy greens

57. B - Muscle pain

58. C - Serum creatinine

59. C - 4,000 mg

60. D - Renal function

61. B - Corticosteroids

62. B - Calcium channel blocker

63. A - Inhibition of sodium reabsorption in the distal convoluted tubule

64. B - Sumatriptan

65. B - Diarrhea

66. B - Cetirizine

67. C - Digoxin

68. A - Statins

69. C - Sexual dysfunction

70. B - Serotonin antagonists

71. A - Naloxone

72. C - Take on an empty stomach

73. B - Penicillins

74. C - Hyperkalemia

75. C - Lisinopril

76. C - MMR

77. D - All of the above

78. A - Metformin

79. A - Doxycycline

80. D - MAOIs

81. A - Cough

82. B - Rinse mouth after each use

83. B - Thyroid function tests

84. A - Patient's allergies

85. B - Etanercept

86. B - Anticholinergic

87. B - Hypomagnesemia

88. A - Dizziness

89. C - Sildenafil

90. A - Vancomycin

91. B - Inhibition of HMG-CoA reductase

92. C - Store capsules in the original container

93. D - Serum lithium levels

94. B - Colchicine

95. C - Epinephrine injection

96. B - Filgrastim

97. B - Avoid alcohol

98. C - Azithromycin

99. B - NSAIDs

100. A - Simvastatin with amlodipine